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sureban
05-31-2005, 12:44 AM
After reading all the stories last week about the NFL approving the sale of the Vikings, the terms "unanimous" and "32-0" were being thrown around a lot. I can understand/believe the "unanimous" statements, but "32-0"? I thought that it would be more like "31-0". Does the current owner actually have a vote?

Wondering,
Mark.

Ltrey33
05-31-2005, 12:48 AM
Not sure, I would think so, unless its the 31 and the commish.

happy camper
05-31-2005, 01:36 AM
yes. the original owner has his own vote.

ultravikingfan
05-31-2005, 02:24 AM
Maybe Tags get 1 vote?

cajunvike
05-31-2005, 07:27 AM
They HAD to vote him...after the embarrassing fiasco that was Fowler!

sureban
05-31-2005, 11:53 PM
"happy camper" wrote:

yes. the original owner has his own vote.

Thanks. I guess that makes sense. Like the President/Prime Minister having one vote in an election.

Mark.

midgensa
06-01-2005, 12:18 AM
The current owner of ALL NFL teams gets a vote in any owners meeting/vote, thus Red has a vote on everything until the sale is finalized ... He is still the one that would be voting right now, even though Wilf is all but the owner, Red runs things til it is financially final.

ultravikingfan
06-01-2005, 12:20 AM
I hope they take away Red's Vikings Debit card and checkbook!

cajunvike
06-07-2005, 12:46 AM
http://www.startribune.com/stories/510/5423985.html